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Readers’ opinions

Jesus died for the sins of man

To the Editor:

When Adam fell mankind (male and female) became enemies of God (Rom.5:10, 8:7). Sinners at birth (Ps.51:5, 58:3). None are righteous (Rom.3:10), none seek after God (Rom.3:11), all have sinned (Rom3:23), and are under the curse of the law (Duet.27:26; Gal.3:10).

The word of God additionally teaches : ” the soul the sinneth, it shall die” Ezek.18:20), “vengeance on them that know not God” (2Thes.1:18), and punishment consisting of “everlasting destruction from the prescence of the LORD” (2Thes.1:9). So, this is the fate of man without reconciliation and redemption of God.

Jesus became man and lived a perfect life according to the will of God. (Jn.6:38; Lu.22:42) and fulfilled all of god’s law and the prophets (Matt.5:17) to save sinners for people redeemed unto himself. He sacrificed himself upon the cross and took upon himself the sins of his chosen becoming sin for them. He suffered the wrath of for those sins and was forsaken by God (Matt.27:46). He completed the work required for “he said, it is finished” and then he died (Jn.19:30).

Jesus died to satisfy the judgment of the wrath of God upon those chosen for him, “for the wages of sin is death” (Rom.6:23). John Murray in his book “the atonement” writes “If Jesus in our place met the whole judgement of God upon our sin, he must have endured that which constitutes the essence of this judgment” since Jesus death satisfied God’s judgment towards his chosen the judgement of God in the death the wicked should satisfy god’s wrath for them as they are consumed in the lake of fire. This is the second death (Ps.37:20; Rev20:14).

Jim Batt

Mexico, Pa.

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